Đề khảo sát chất lượng đội tuyển HSG liên trường khối THPT huyện Triệu Sơn mở rộng lần 2 môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 - Năm học 2020-2021

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THANH HÓA
TRƯỜNG THPT TRIỆU SƠN 4
ĐỀ KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG
LIÊN TRƯỜNG KHỐI THPT HUYỆN TRIỆU SƠN MỞ RỘNG
LẦN 2 - NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
Môn: Tiếng anh - Lớp 12 THPT
Thời gian: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày khảo sát: 12 tháng 11 năm 2020
 (Đề khảo sát có 08 trang)
PART A: LISTENING (15 pts)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
· Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
· Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
· Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng Tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
Part 1. You are going to listen to a conversation with a woman who wants to join an international social club. Listen and complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. 
International Social Club 
 APPLICATION FORM
Name: Jenny Foo
Age: 21
Nationality: (1) _______________
Address: (2) _____________ Road, Bondi
Mobile phone: (3) _______________
Occupation: (4) _______________
Free time interests: (5) _______________
Part 2. Listen to a talk about lifelong learning. Decide if each sentence is True/False or Not given. (5pts)
6.
We will soon be left behind unless we keep our knowledge and skill sharp and up-to-date in this fast changing world.
T
F
NG
7.
Life long learning, or LLL, sharpens our mind and improves our memory.
T
F
NG
8.
Reseach reveals that people with more education are more likely to suffer from memory loss in old age.
T
F
NG
9.
LLL only encourages people to get on well with their colleagues and customers.
T
F
NG
10.
LLL offers individuals better opportunities to make more money.
T
F
NG
Part 3. Listen to a talk about the origins of James Bond and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) according to what you hear. 0 has been done as an example.
Example: 0. The fiction spy James Bond was created by ______?
A. Jane Austen	B. J.K. Rowling	C. Thomas Hardy	D. Ian Fleming
11. What was the name of Ian Fleming’s Jamaican estate, where he created the character?
	A. Goldenball	B. Goldeneye	C. Thunderball	D. No information
12. Which of these statements about the fictional spy James Bond is false? 
	A. Ian Fleming enjoyed bird watching.
	B. “James Bond” was named after the author of a book about spying.
	C. Ian Fleming based the character on himself.
	D. James Bond’s exploits were inspired by a real life spy
13. Which of these film titles is said to be the Bond family motto?
	A. You Only Live Twice	B. Live and Let Die
	C. The World is not Enough	D. No information
14. The code name ‘007’ gives James Bond _______.
	A. A licence to kill	B. A licence to thrill
	C. A licence to spy	D. No information
15. In which book did James Bond first make his appearance?
	A. Dr No	B. Goldfinger
	C. Casino Royale	D. No information
PART B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (2 points)
16.	A. youths	B. clothes	C. months 	D. paths
17. 	A. accelerate	B. passionate	C. fortunate	D. cirtificate
18. A. wretched	 B. watched	 C. sacred	 D. hatred
II. Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (3 points)
19. A. polictics	B. romantic	C. television	D. circumstances
20. A. cyberbullying	B. argricultural	C. perseverance	D. geothermal
PART C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 pts)
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. (20 pts)
21. She told us ______ story that we all forgot about the time. 
A. such interesting a
B.such the interesting
C. so an interesting
D. so interesting a
22. Nobody cares about the starving people ______ 
A. whose aid is intended for
C. whom the aid is intended
B. that aid is intended for
D. for the aid is intended
23. To protect _____ hackers, security experts advised longer passwords ______ combinations of upper and lowercase letters, as well as numbers. 
A. on - between 
B. against - with 
C. about - with 
D. from - to
24. Has anyone managed to ___________ the meaning of the contract?
A. seize
B. snatch
C. grasp
D. grip
25. You must be Jane’s father, ______ ?
A. mustn’t you
B. can’t you	
C. don’t you
D. aren’t you
26. The young woman,______, was invisibly very happy after the birth of her child.
A. though tired B. despite tired C. she was tired	 D. tired though she was
27. Those men are paid by ______.	
A. an hour
B. every hour 
C. hour
D. the hour
28. The entire city was _______ electricity last night – it was chaotic.
A. no
B. almost no
C. hardly any
D. without
29. Don’t take it as ______that you will be promoted in your job; other colleagues stand a good chance too.	
A. fixed
B. standard
C. read
D. word
30. James never show his emotions, no matter what happens, he always keeps a stiff upper ________.
A. mouth
B. eye
C. head
D. lip
II. Fill each gap of the following sentences with the correct form of the word in brackets. (10 pts)
31. Minh is_______ (RELY). He always try to find solutions to his problems and seldom needs help from others. 
32. The Americans are much more concerned than the Indians with physical ________ (ATTRACT) when choosing a wife or a husband. 
33. The two nations finally agreed to sign a(n) _______ (AGGRESSIVE) pact to nomalize their deplomatic relations. 
34. She is very efficient and _______ polite to the customers. (FAIL)
35. This article is about people who claim to have ______(NOMAL) abilities such as mind-reading. 
36. For Covid 19 data to date suggests that 80% of infections are mild or _______ (SYMPTOM). 
37. Like many other __________(TECHNICAL) of my age, I dread to use hi-tech gears.
II. Use the correct forms of the verbs in brackets (10ps)
38. Tom was pleased (admit)_______ to the college.
39. Neither you, nor I, nor anyone else (be)_________ correct.
40. He (go) _________ to the last meeting but he didn’t.
41. Congress has decreed that the gasoline tax (abolish)______ .
42. It (be )__________ very late, they decided to stay at home.
43. I was exhausted at the end of the exam. I (write)__________ for over two hours.
44. There are just 5 awards, each (consist)______ of 50,000 Swiss Francs.
45. I’d sooner she (pay)___________ the money back yesterday.
III. The following passage contains 5 errors. Find and correct them (5pts)
 If you want to prepare yourself for great achievement and have more to contribute to your education or your work, try reading more books. Pick up some of the interesting informative books and search for well-researched materials that can help you grow.
	We should encourage our children to read more books and spend less time watching TV. Some people have commented that this is inconsistent. "Why is the written word a superior way to get information than television?" That is an interesting point of view worth further exploration. Reading is a skill that is in much greater demand than the demand in watching TV. There are no jobs that require a person to be able to watch TV but reading is an integral part of many jobs. The written word is an incredibly flexible and efficient way of communication. You can write something down and, in no time, it can be communicated to many different people. Not only that, we can digest vast numbers of information through reading in a very short time. A good reader can acquire more information in reading for two hours than someone watches TV can acquire in a full day. You are able to gain a lot of information quickly because you are a fast reader with good comprehensible skills. It will save you massive amounts of time and you will be able to assimilate vast quantities of information.
Line 1
Line 5
Line 10
Line 15
Line 20
Line
Mistake
Correction
46
47
48
49
50
PART D. READING (30 points)
I. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. (10pts)
Some famous places are disappointing: dirty, cramped, and a bit of a cliché. But there are others (51) ______, even though you've seen every television program ever made about them, are every (52) ______ as wonderful as you'd imagined. The Grand Canyon is one of these and so, despite being next door to a main road, is Stonehenge. Another is Venice which, in its entirety, (53) ______ a great work of art, each decaying aspect revealing an (54) ______ glimpse of water or startling architecture, each individual building or piazza (55) ______ an exquisite sense of proportion. I return to Venice every two years in the course of my work and on each of these occasions I have found something new to (56) ______ at. Alarm cries about how (57) ______ this can last are sounded every now and then each time the water levels rise. But the fact that this city is (58) ______ into the sea seems to add to its romantic atmosphere. Far more serious is the depopulation, for it seems that just about every week another family leaves. Since 1945 more than half the population of Venice has moved to the mainland. The rich (59) ______ the great palazzos along the Grand Canal and visit every once in a while, but leave the windows dark for the rest of the time. Mass tourism threatens (60) ______ very structure of the city. It is a sad victim of its own success. 
51. A. then
B. which 
C. these
D. those
52. A. bit
B. piece
C. portion
D. fragment
53. A. retains
B. remains
C. keeps
D. maintains
54. A. unforeseen
B. unexpected
C. unimaginable
D. unbelievable
55. A. concealing 
B. exhibiting 
C. displaying 
D. presenting
56. A. marvel
B. compliment
C. praise
D. stare
57. A. far
B. much
C. often
D. long
58. A. emerging 
B. floating 
C. falling 
D. sinking
59. A. gain 
B. own
C. hold
D. master
60. A. a 
B. this
C. the
D. that
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only one word in each gap. (10pts)
 YOUTH VIOLENCE
Following the World Health Organization, youth are defined as people between the ages of 10 and 29 years. Youth violence refers to violence occurring between youths, and (61)_____ acts that range from bullying and physical fighting, through more severe sexual and physical assault to homocide.
Worldwide some 250,000 homocides occur (62)_____ youth 10 – 29 years of age each year, which is 41% of the total number of homocides globally each year (“Global Burden of Disease”, World Health Organization, 2008). For each young person killed, 20 – 40 more sustain injuries requiring hospital treatment. Youth violence has a serious, often lifelong (63)_____ on a person’s (64)____ and social functioning. Youth violence greatly increases the costs of heath, welfare and criminal justice services; reduces productivity; (65)_____ the value of property; and generally undermines the fabric of the society.
Preventition programmes shown to be effective or to have promise in reducing youth violence include life skills and social development programmes (66)____ to help children and (67)____ manage anger, resolve conflicts, and develop the necessary social skills to solve problems; school-based anti-bullying prevention programmes; and programmes to reduce access to (68)____, illegal drugs and guns. Also given significant neighbourhood effects on youth violence, (69)____ involving relocating families to less poor environments have shown promising results. Similarly, urban (70)____ projects such as business improvement districts have shown a reduction in youth violence.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the passage. (10 pts)
Line 5
Line 10
Line 15
Line 20
 Life originated in the early seas less than a billion years after Earth was formed. Yet another three billion years were to pass before the first plants and animals appeared on the continents. Life's transition from the sea to the land was perhaps as much of an evolutionary challenge as was the genesis of life.
 What forms of life were able to make such a drastic change in lifestyle ? The traditional view of the first terrestrial organisms is based on megafossils ― relatively large specimens of essentially whole plants and animals. Vascular plants, related to modern seed plants and ferns, left the first comprehensive megafossil record. Because of this, it has been commonly assumed that the sequence of terrestrialization reflected the evolution of modern terrestrial ecosystems. In this view, primitive vascular plants first colonized the margins of continental waters, followed by animals that fed on the plants, and lastly by animals that preyed on the plant-eaters. Moreover, the megafossils suggest that terrestrial life appeared and diversified explosively near the boundary between the Silurian and the Devonian periods, a little more than 400 million years ago.
 Recently, however, paleontologists have been taking a closer look at the sediments below this Silurian-Devonian geological boundary. It turns out that some fossils can be extracted from these sediments by putting the rocks in an acid bath. The technique has uncovered new evidence from sediments that were deposited near the shores of the ancient oceans ― plant microfossils and microscopic pieces of small animals. In many instances the specimens are less than one-tenth of a millimeter in diameter. Although they were entombed in the rocks for hundreds of millions of years, many of the fossils consist of the organic remains of the organism. These newly discovered fossils have not only revealed the existence of previously unknown organisms, but have also pushed back these dates for the invasion of land by multicellular organisms. Our views about the nature of the early plant and animal communities are now being revised. And with those revisions come new speculations about the first terrestrial life-forms.
71. The word “drastic” in line 5 is closest in meaning to
 	A. widespread 	B. radical	C. progressive	 	D. risky
72. According to the theory that the author calls “the traditional view,” what was the first form of life to appear on land?
 	A. Bacteria	 	B. Meat-eating animals	 
C. Plant-eating animals	 	D. Vascular plants
73. According to the passage, what happened about 400 million years ago?
A. Many terrestrial life-forms died out.
B. New life-forms on land developed at a rapid rate.
 	C. The megafossils were destroyed by floods.	 
D. Life began to develop in the ancient seas.
74. The word “extracted” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
 	A. located	B. preserved	C. removed	D. studied
75. What can be inferred from the passage about the fossils mentioned from “ It turns out that some fossils can be . . .” to “ . . . pieces of small animals”?
 	A. They have not been helpful in understanding the evolution of terrestrial life.
 	B. They were found in approximately the same numbers as vascular plant fossils.
 	C. They are older than the megafossils.
D. They consist of modern life- forms
76. The word “instances” in line 21 is closest in meaning to
 	A. methods	B. processes	C. cases	 D. reasons
77. The word “they” in line 22 refers to
 	A. rocks	 B. shores	 C. oceans	D.specimens
78. The word “entombed” in line 22 is closest in meaning to
 	A. crushed	 B.trapped	C. produced	 D. excavated
79. Which of the following resulted from the discovery of microscopic fossils?
 	A. The time estimate for the first appearance of terrestrial life-forms was revised.
 	B. Old techniques for analyzing fossils were found to have new uses.
 	C. The origins of primitive sea life were explained.
 	D. Assumptions about the locations of ancient seas were changed.
80. With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree?
 A. The evolution of terrestrial life was as complicated as the origin of life itself.
 B. The discovery of microfossils supports the traditional view of how terrestrial life evolved.
 C. New species have appeared at the same rate over the course of the last 400 million years.
 D. The technology used by paleontologists is too primitive to make accurate determinations about ages of fossils.
PART E: WRITING (20 ps)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Write your completed sentences in the answer sheet (5 points)
81. A work permit will only be issued on receipt of the correct documents.
à Not ____________________________________ .
82. Sue was supposed to write to her parents last week. 
à Sue ought_______________________________ . 
83. Success in the academic field depends on your ability to amass qualifications.
àThe more _________________________________. 
84. Attendance at the exhibition has been down this year.
à The exhibition_____________________________________.
85.The president’s bodyguards stood behind him watching.
àWatchfully ___________________________________________. 
II. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word in capitals, and so that the meaning stays the same. Write your completed sentences in the answer sheet (5 points). 
86. Your attitude will have to change if you want to succeed. 	 (LEAF)
→ ________________________________ 
87. The direct aim of the statement is to make the public aware of the present situation. 
( BOILS)
→ ______________________________ 
88. The salesman persuaded me to spend over $ 100 on a silk shirt. ( TALKED)
→ The salesman __________________________ 
89. This house is very different from the little flat we used to live in. ( CRY)
→ ____________________.
90. He is becoming quite famous as an interviewer. (NAME)	 
→ ___________ . 
III. Essay (10 pts)
Some people think that all teenagers should be required to do unpaid job in their free time to help the local community. They believe this would benefit both the individual teenager and society as a whole . Do you agree or disagree with the above statement? 
Write an essay of about 250 words to express your view. Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
 .HẾT 
Họ tên thí sinh:..................................................................................SBD:................................
Thí sinh KHÔNG được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
SỞ GD&ĐT THANH HÓA
TRƯỜNG THPT LÊ LỢI
Đáp án chính thức
Gồm có 03 trang
ĐÁP ÁN KỲ THI KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI LIÊN TRƯỜNG LẦN 5
NĂM HỌC 2020 - 2021
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH- LỚP 12 THPT
Thời gian làm bài:180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày thi: .. tháng năm 2020
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
THANH HÓA
Hướng dẫn chấm gồm 6 trang trang
TRƯỜNG THPT TRIỆU SƠN 4
KHẢO SÁT CHẤT LƯỢNG ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG
LIÊN TRƯỜNG KHỐI THPT HUYỆN TRIỆU SƠN MỞ RỘNG
LẦN 2 - NĂM HỌC 2020-2021
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Môn: LỊCH SỬ - Lớp 12 THPT
Ngày khảo sát: 12 tháng 11 năm 2020
PART A: LISTENING (15 pts)
Part 1. You are going to listen to a conversation with a woman who wants to join an international social club. (5pts)
1. Malaysian
2. 13 Angle sea
3. 040 422 9160
4. Economist
5. dancing
Part 2. Listen to a talk about lifelong learning. Decide if each sentence is True False or Not given. (5pts)
6. T 
7. T
8. F
9. F
10. NG
Part 3. Listen to the conversation and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D for each of the following questions. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. (10 pts)
11.B 
12.B
13.C
14.A
15.C
PART B: PHONETICS (5 pts)
I. Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (3 points)
16. C	17. A	18. A 
II. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (2 points)
19. B	20. A
PART C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 pts)
I. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. (20 pts)
21. D	22. B	23. B	24. C	25. D
26. A	27. C	28. D	29. C	30. D
II. Fill each gap of the following sentences with the correct form of the word in brackets. (10 pts)
31. self-reliant
32. attractiveness
33. non-aggression
34. unfailingly
35. paranomal
36. asymptomatic
37. technophobes
II.Use the correct forms of the verbs in brackets (10ps)
38. to have been admitted
39. is/was
40. should have gone
41. (should) be abolished
42. being
43. had been writing
44. consisting
45. had paid
III. The following passage contains 5 errors. Find and correct them (5pts)
Line
Mistake
Correction
46
3
interesting
interestingly
47
10
in
for
48
15
numbers
amounts
49
17
watches
watching
50
19
comprehensible
comprehension
PART D: READING (30 points)
I. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. (10pts)
51. B
52.A
53.B
54.B
55.C
56.A
57.D
58.D
59.B
60.C
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only one word in each gap . (10pts)
61.includes
62. among
63. impact
64. psychological
65. decreases
66. designed
67. adolescents
68. alcohol
69. interventions
70. renewal
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the passage. Write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes. (10 pts)
71.B
72.D
73.B
74.C
75.C
76.C
77.D
78.B
79.A
80.A
PART E: WRITING (20 ps)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Write your completed sentences in the answer sheet (5 points)
81. Not until the correct documents are received/ have been received will a work permit be issued.
82. Sue ought to have written to her parents last week. 
83. The more qualifications you can / are able to amass, the more successful in the academic field you become
84. The exhibition has been poorly attended this year.
85. Watchfully standing behind the president were his bodyguards.
II. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word in capitals, and so that the meaning stays the same. Write your completed sentences in the answer sheet (5 points). 
86. You will have to change over a new leaf if you want to succeed. 	
87. The statement boils down to making the public aware of the present situation. 
88. The salesman talked me into spending over $ 100 on a silk shirt. 
89. This house is a far cry from the little flat we used to live in. 
90. He is making his name for himself as an interviewer. 	 
III. Essay (10 pts)
Task achievement:
- fully developed position 	
- well supported ideas 
3 pts
Coherence and cohesion:
- ideas are connected logically 
- different means to link ideas are used ( pronouns, synonyms, linking words, repetition). 
2 pts
Lexicology: 	
- wide range of vocabulary used 
- academic words 
- accurate use of vocabulary (spelling, meaning, collocation) 
2 pts
Grammar:
- wide rage of structures (simple/complex/compound sentences, emphasis, inversion ) 
- accurate (tense, patterns)
2 pts
Persuasiveness: 	
1 pts