Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 - Năm 2021 - Mã đề 103

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(Đề thi gồm. 05 trang)
KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2021
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 103
Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Họ và tên thí sinh: . SBD: 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 01. A. frames	B. sweeps	C. cubes	D. heals
Question 02. A. broad	B. boat	C. roast	D. coast
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 03. A. hunger	B. college	C. parents	D. enrol
Question 04. A. musician	B. solution	C. engineer	D. infectious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 05. Unless he starts at once, he_________ late for the train.
A. will be	B. had been	C. would be	D. was
Question 06. I_________ a mystery movie on TV when the electricity went out.
A. watched	B. am watching	C. would watch	D. was watching
Question 07. She is hoping_________ a loan from her bank to help her out of her financial predicament.
A. get	B. getting	C. got	D. to get
Question 08. His mother cleans the floor in the afternoon every day, _________?
A. hasn’t she	B. will she	C. doesn’t she	D. did she
Question 09. Britain has accused Russia_________ poisoning the ex-Russian spy Sergei Skripal and his daughter.
A. of 	B. from 	C. for 	D. on
Question 10. She is_________ honour to her family, friends, team-mates and the nation.
A. a	B. an	C. the	D. Ø (no article)
Question 11. I will come back to you_________.
A. until you finished your exercises	B. after you had finished your exercises
C. when you were finishing your exercises	D. when you have finished your exercises
Question 12. I do not usually go shopping on Sunday_________ the stores are so crowded.
A. as	B. though	C. due to	D. despite
Question 13. The U23 Vietnamese football team’s performance has attracted_________ from around the world and shown promise for Vietnam’s soccer horizon.
A. attentive	B. attention	C. attend	D. attentively 
Question 14. We used to live in_________ families with support from others but our relationships have changed.
A. extended	B. expanded 	C. excepted 	D. excluded
Question 15. The proportion of English, who are_________ obese, increased by 50 percent from 2000 to 2005.
A. fully	B. intensely 	C. greatly 	D. severely
Question 16. I really like the song Diem Xua just_________ by Hong Nhung.
A. having performed	B. performed	C. performing	D. has been perform
Question 17. Betty told her younger sister to_________ her alone because she didn’t feel like playing games.
A. put	B. leave	C. make	D. set
Question 18. She was late again, but I'm not sure how it_________ this time.
A. bear out	B. turn down	C. came about	D. bring up
Question 19. It’s about time you_________ your hair down and had some fun!
A. made	B. set	C. let	D. put
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20. You could use clips to keep your hair tidier.
A. franker	B. neater	C. curlier	D. drier
Question 21. A series of programs have been broadcast to raise public awareness of healthy living.
A. experience	B. understanding	C. confidence	D. assistance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22. She feels obligated to be nice to Jack because he's her boss.
A. urged	B. free 	C. required 	D. suggested
Question 23. He didn’t bat an eyelid when he realized he failed the driving test again.
A. received	B. continued	C. remembered	D. surprised
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 24. – Ann: “Why don’t you come over and see the new film with me?” – Bob: “___________”
A. I’m afraid not.	B. Great, I’d love to.	C. Sorry, I have no idea. D. Certainly, it’s true.
Question 25. – Lan: “Do you think I’ll get the job?” – Mai: “__________________”
A. I know so.	B. Well, I hope so.	C. I think not.	D. yes, that’s right.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
We have reached greatness, but the magnificent size of our successes will be matched by the size of our growing Crisis of Success. By 2050 there will be 9 billion people to feed, clothe, transport, employ, educate and entertain.
Billions are committed to a growth-driven world economy they expect to inflate for centuries to come. As we pursue (26)_________ growth, our limitless consumption threatens to crowd out everything else on Earth. We are warming the climate, overspending our financial resources, requiring more fresh water than we have, increasing income inequality, diminishing other species and triggering shockwaves (27)_________ we can’t cope with a problem.
Billions of people are at the “bottom” of the economy. The middle class is declining in advanced societies. Youth underemployment is epidemic in (28)_________ countries. The forecast is for billions to remain stuck for their whole lives.
Many no longer believe today’s leaders can improve this, (29)_________ today’s leaders are increasing their power and digital surveillance. Leaders want new options as much as everyone else. Clearly, there is room to (30)_________ about a more successful world along with new technology. (Adapted from 
Question 26. A. scattered	B. conceited	C. unlimited	D. troubled
Question 27. A. whenever	B. whoever	C. however	D. whatever
Question 28. A. little	B. a little	C. much	D. many
Question 29. A. since	B. despite	C. though	D. thanks to
Question 30. A. check	B. dream	C. show	D. drink
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Measuring some 620 by 513 feet (190 by 155 meters), the Colosseum was the largest amphitheater in the Roman world. Unlike many earlier amphitheaters, which had been dug into hillsides to provide adequate support, the Colosseum was a freestanding structure made of stone and concrete. The distinctive exterior had three stories of arched entrances–a total of around 80–supported by semi-circular columns. Each story contained columns of a different order (or style). At the bottom were columns of the relatively simple Doric order, followed by Ionic and topped by the ornate Corinthian order. Located just near the main entrance to the Colosseum was the Arch of Constantine, built in A.D. 315 in honor of Constantine I’s victory over Maxentius at Pons Milvius.
Inside, the Colosseum had seating for more than 50,000 spectators, who may have been arranged according to social ranking but were most likely packed into the space like sardines in a can. Awnings were unfurled from the top story in order to protect the audience from the hot Roman sun as they watched gladiatorial combats, hunts, wild animal fights and larger combats such as mock naval engagements (for which the arena was flooded with water) put on at great expense. The vast majority of the combatants who fought in front of Colosseum audiences in Ancient Rome were men. Gladiators were generally slaves, condemned criminals or prisoners of war.
(Adapted from 
Question 31. Which could be the best title for the passage?
A. The Measure of the Colosseum	B. The Colosseum. A Grand Amphitheater
C. The Architecture of the Colosseum	D. The Colosseum and Bloodshed Fights
Question 32. The word “relatively” in paragraph 1 mostly means_________.
A. very	B. rarely	C. extremely	D. rather
Question 33. Which of the following is TRUE about the Colosseum’s structure as stated in the passage?
A. It was dug into hillsides to provide adequate support.
B. Its exterior had nothing distinctive.
C. It had freestanding structure made of stone and concrete.
D. Each of its stories contained columns of the same order
Question 34. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to_________.
A. audience	B. prisoners	C. combatants	D. gladiators
Question 35. According to the passage, gladiators fighting to entertain Colosseum audiences don’t include_________.
A. slaves	B. condemned criminals	C. prisoners of war 	D. naval soldiers
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two thirds of the world’s population will live in cities, up from about 54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well understood, we need to recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings risks of profound social instability, risks to critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the potential for devastating spread of disease. These risks can only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas continues.
How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities are governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and economic activities mean that the risks materializing at the city level will have far greater potential to disrupt society than ever before.
Urbanization is by no means bad per se. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and societal development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies of scale and network effects while reducing the impact on climate of transportation. As such, an urban model can make economic activity more environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of people can spark innovation and create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas.
But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For example, one of the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater employment opportunities and the hope of a better life in cities. But rapidly increasing population density can create severe problems, especially if planning efforts are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world’s urban expansion is taking place in slums, exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating unsanitary conditions that facilitate the spread of disease.
The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in the face of rapid and unplanned urbanization, infrastructure, health, climate change, and social instability. In each of these areas we find new risks that can best be managed or, in some cases, transferred through the mechanism of insurance.
(Adapted from 
Question 36. Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities
B. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries
C. What has Driven Rapid Urbanization?
D. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Countries
Question 37. The word “spark” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. return	B. justify	C. start	D. extend
Question 38. According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization?
A. It minimize risks for economic, cultural and societal development.
B. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective
C. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved.
D. People may come up with new ideas for innovation.
Question 39. The word “influx” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. inflow	B. income	C. influence	D. instance
Question 40. Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. About 54% of the world’s population will live in cities by 2050.
B. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.
C. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well.
D. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.
Question 41. The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to_________.
A. urban expansion	B. socio-economic disparities
C. disease	D. unsanitary conditions
Question 42. According to the passage, why does urban expansion facilitate the spread of disease?
A. Most of the world’s urban expansion is taking place in slums.
B. Too many people hope for a better life in cities.
C. Employment opportunities in cities are greater.
D. Poverty cannot be eliminated thoroughly.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43. Every student who majors in English are ready to participate in the contest.
A. student	B. in	C. are	D. participate
Question 44. All kinds of feelings, including anger, joy, and anxious, can be the topic of our talk.
A. of	B. including	C. anxious	D. the
Question 45. As seeing from the mountain top, the area looks like a picturesque harbour town. 
A. seeing	B. the	C. looks 	D. picturesque
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46. Nam is less intelligent than his brother.
A. Nam’s brother is not as intelligent as he is. B. Nam’s brother less intelligent than he is.
C. Nam is not as intelligent as his brother.	 D. Nam is more intelligent than his brother.
Question 47. “I will reply to the President’s offer right now” Mary said.
A. Mary said that she would reply to the President’s offer right then.
B. Mary said that she replied to the President’s offer right now.
C. Mary said that I would reply to the President’s offer right now.
D. Mary said that I had replied to the President’s offer right then.
Question 48. It’s important that you pay attention to the lecture.
A. You must pay attention to the lecture.	B. You shouldn’t pay attention to the lecture.
C. You can pay attention to the lecture.	D. You needn’t pay attention to the lecture.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. The dish is not delicious. Its salty taste spoils it.
A. But for its salty taste, the dish would not be delicious.
B. The dish would be very delicious if it didn’t taste so salty.
C. Provided it tasted so salty, the dish would be delicious.
D. The dish will be very delicious unless it tastes so salty.
Question 50. His wife gave birth to their first child. He understood what true responsibility meant.
A. Never has he understood true responsibility before he became a father.
B. Were his first child not to be born, he would understand his true responsibility.
C. Hardly had he understood his true responsibility when their first child was born.
D. Not until he became a father did he understand what true responsibility meant.
__________HẾT__________
01. B
02. A
03. D
04. C
05. A
06. D
07. D
08. C
09. A
10. B
11. D
12. A
13. B
14. A
15. D
16. B
17. B
18. C
19. C
20. B
21. B
22. B
23. D
24. B
25. B
26. C
27. A
28. D
29. C
30. B
31. B
32. D
33. C
34. A
35. D
36. B
37. C
38. D
39. A
40. C
41. D
42. A
43. C
44. C
45. A
46. C
47. A
48. A
49. B
50. D