Đề cương ôn tập kiểm tra học kì I môn Tiếng anh - Lớp 12 - Trường THPT Trần Phú-Hoàn Kiếm - Năm học 2020-2021

Đề cương ôn tập kiểm tra học kì I môn Tiếng anh - Lớp 12 - Trường THPT Trần Phú-Hoàn Kiếm - Năm học 2020-2021

I. UNITS : 1 - 5

II. PHONETICS:

• The pronunciation of the endings “s” and “ed”

• Stress in two-syllable

• Stress in three-syllable words

• Stress in more than three-syllable words

III. GRAMMAR

• Tenses

• Passive voice

• Reported Speech

• Conditional Sentences

• Relative Clauses

• Prepositions and articles

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO HÀ NỘI
TRƯỜNG THPT TRẦN PHÚ-HOÀN KIẾM
 NỘI DUNG ÔN KIỂM TRA HỌC KÌ I 
 NĂM HỌC 2020 – 2021
 MÔN: ANH KHỐI 12
I. UNITS : 1 - 5
II. PHONETICS:
• The pronunciation of the endings “s” and “ed” 
• Stress in two-syllable
• Stress in three-syllable words
• Stress in more than three-syllable words
III. GRAMMAR
• Tenses
• Passive voice
• Reported Speech
• Conditional Sentences 
• Relative Clauses
• Prepositions and articles 
IV. PRACTICE TESTS
TEST 1
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs 
from the others three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. heavy B. head C. weather D. easy
Question 2. A. processed B. infested C. balanced D. reached
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs 
from the others three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. applicant B. preference C. courteous D. appointment
Question 4. A. interviewer B. concentrate C. comfortable D. technology
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in 
meaning to the underline word(s) in each of the two following questions.
Question 5. Who will replace you to monitor the class on the day you are on duty on next week?
A. support B. undermine C. vandalize D. manage
Question 6. We, the young, should take actions to raise people’s awareness of being concerned with 
sewage processing measure from now on.
A. indifferent B. carefree with C. interested in D. nervous about
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in 
meaning to the underline word(s) in each of the two following questions.
Question 7. That is a well-behaved boy whose behavior has nothing to complain about.
A. behaving cleverly B. behaving nice C. behaving improperly D. good behavior
Question 8. I must have a watch since punctuality is imperative in my new job.
A. being courteous B. being cheerful C. being efficient D. being late
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the 
following questions.
Question 9. The longest mountain range, the Mid-Atlantic Range, is not hardly visible because most of it
lies under the ocean.
A. mountain range B. not hardly C. most of D. under
Question 10. The abilities to work hard, follow directions, and thinking independently are some of the 
criteria for success in the work place.
A.to work B. thinking C. are D. for success
Question 11. Establishing in 1984 for students who wanted to study art and music subjects, LaGuardia 
was the first public school of its kind.
A. Establishing B. for students C. was D. of its kind
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 12. We all believe that a happy marriage should be ______ mutual love.
A. based on B. concerned with C. confided in D. obliged to
Question 13. The teachers are, at the moment, trying their best ______ all the necessary that their students
may need for their critical examination while, sadly, some do not seem to appreciate that.
A.to prepare B. prepared C. preparing D. prepare
Question 14. A lot of skills and knowledge fields _____.
A.be prepared and practised B. have to be prepared and practiced
C. prepared and practised D. have to being prepared and practiced
Question 15. We arranged to meet at the station, but she didn’t ______.
A. get through B. turn up C. walk out D. wait on
Question 16. Our professor _______ said we should turn in the assignment on Friday.
A. specific B. specifically C. specifying D. specifyingly
Question 17. They were 30 minutes later because their car ______ down.
A. got B. put C. cut D. broke
Question 18. Scientists warned that many of the world’s great cities are _____ flooding.
A. being B. at risk C. in danger D. endangered
Question 19. The replacement of shops such as the groceries’ and chemists by cafes _____ the 
housewives with insufficient facilities for shopping.
A. live B. have left C. has left D. to have left
Question 20. I studied English for 4 years in high school. _____ had trouble talking to people when I was 
travelling in the US.
A. Therefore, I B. Otherwise, I C. Although I D. However, I
Question 21. My uncle was _____ ill last summer; however, fortunately, he is now making a slow but 
steady recovery.
A. seriously B. deeply C. fatally D. critically
Question 22. If you want your son to do better on his exams, I suggest he _____ harder.
A. will study B. studies C. would study D. study
Question 23. _____ the book, please return it to me.
A. Should you find B. Will you be finding
C. Will you find D. Will you have found
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable respond to complete the following 
exchanges.
Question 24. Mary invited her friend, Sarah, to have dinner out that night and Sarah accepted.
Mary: “Shall we eat out tonight?” – Sarah: “_____”
A. That’s a great idea B. That’s acceptable
C. You’re very welcome D. It’s kind of you to invite
Question 25. “Thank you for taking the time to come here in person.” – “_____”
A. It’s my pleasure B .I don’t know what time that person comes 
C. I’d love to come. What time? D. Do you have time for some gossip?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the 
following sentences.
Question 26. You couldn’t have made a very good impression on them.
A. You seem to have impressed them very unfavorably.
B. It’s impossible that the effect you made on them was particularly positive.
C. Something appears to have made them think you are unsuitable.
D. You should have tried harder to make them think well of you.
Question 27. Due to the heavy snow, all buses have been cancelled until further notice.
A. If it weren’t for the heavy snow, you would notice how much further the bus had to go
B. The buses would have been cancelled if only it had not snowed so much.
C. Heavy snow has caused the busses to stop running, though there will be an announcement of when they 
will start up again.
D. If this snow keeps up, there will be an announcement to declare that the buses will no longer run.
Question 28. It’s more than a couple of years since I last went there.
A. I have never stayed there for longer than 2 years.
B. It was only after 2 years that I went there again.
C. I haven’t been there since my visit over 2 years ago.
D. I had never been there until the year before last.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the 
following questions.
Question 29. The referee brought the football game to a halt. He blew his whistle.
A. The referee stopped playing football and blowing his whistle.
B. The referee stopped the football game before he blew his whistle.
C. Having stopped the football match, the referee blew his whistle.
D. The referee brought the football game to a halt by blowing his whistle.
Question 30. We planned to visit Eiffel Tower in the afternoon. We couldn’t afford the fee however.
A. As planned, we could not afford the visit to Eiffel Tower in the afternoon because of the fee.
B. We visited Eiffel Tower in the afternoon though the fee was too high for us.
C. We were going to visit Eiffel Tower in the afternoon but the fee was too high for us.
D. The fee was, however, high enough for us to plan a visit to Eiffel Tower in the afternoon.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
 Speech is one of the most important (31) ______ of communicating. It consists of far more than just
making noises. To talk and also to (32) ______ by other people, we have to speak a language, that is, we 
have to use combinations of sounds that everyone agrees to stand for a particular object or idea. 
Communication would be impossible if everyone made up their own language.
 Learning a language properly is very (33) _____. The basic vocabulary of English is not very large, 
and only about 2000 words are needed to speak it quite (34) ______. But the more idea you can express, 
the more precise you can be about their exact meaning.
 Words are the main thing we use in communicating what we want to say. The way we say the words
is also very important. Our tone of voice can express many emotions and (35) _____ whether we are 
pleased or angry, for instance.
Question 31. A. rules B. reasons C. ways D. tests
Question 32. A.be understood B.be spoken C.be examined D.be talked 
Question 33. A. easy B. expensive C. simple D. 
important
Question 34. A. perfect B. good C. well D. fluent
Question 35. A. know B. show C. ask D. understand
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
COLORS AND EMOTIONS
 Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as important to 
me as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related? 
 Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions, and is 
something that you can use to improve or change your emotions . The color that you choose to wear either 
reflects your current state of being, or reflects the color or emotion that you need.
 The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of course 
they also affect anyone who comes in contact with you, but you are the one saturated with the color all day!
I even choose items around me based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes based on the color
or emotion that I need for the day. So you can consciously use color to control the emotions that you are 
exposed to, which can help you to feel better.
 Color, sound, and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are meant
to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in motion. 
Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest way to be healthy is 
to be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your emotions.
Question 36. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Colorful clothes can change your mood.
B. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other
C. Colors can help you become healthy
D. Colors are one of the most exciting.
Question 37. Which of the following can be affected by color?
A. Your need for thrills B. Your friend’s feelings
C. Your appetite D. Your mood
Question 38. Who is more influenced by colors you wear?
A. The people around you are more influenced. B. No one is influenced.
C. You are more influenced. D. The people who wear those colors, not you.
Question 39. According to this passage, what create disease?
A. Wearing the color black B. Exposing yourself to bright colors 
C. Being open to your emotions D. Ignoring your emotions
Question 40. The term “intimately” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. Clearly B. Closely C. Obviously D. Simply
Question 41. The term “they” in paragraph 3 refers to
A. Emotions B. People C. Colors D. None of the above
Question 42. Why does the author mention that color and emotions are both vibrations?
A. To show how color can affect energy levels in the body. B. Because they both affect how we 
feel.
C. To prove the relationship between emotions and color. D. Because vibrations make you 
healthy.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
 Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high- quality protein, eggs also 
contain a high level of blood cholesterol, one of the major causes of heart diseases. One egg yolk, in fact, 
contains a little more than two- third of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has driven 
egg sales to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought about the development of several 
alternatives to eating regular eggs. One alternative is to eat substitute eggs. These eggs substitutes are not 
really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when they are cooked. They have the advantage of having 
low cholesterol rates, and they can be scrambled or used in banking. One disadvantage, however, is that 
they are not good for frying, poaching, or boiling. A second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg,
sometimes called “designer” eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low- flat diets consisting of
ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diet, however, these hens produce eggs 
that contain the same amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that 
eating their eggs will not raise the blood cholesterol in humans
 Eggs producers claim that their product has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to 
back up their claim. And, in fact, studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels 
have brought mixed results. It may be that is not the type of eggs that is the main determinant of cholesterol
but the person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food 
than other people. In fact, there is evidence that certainly dietary fats stimulate the body’s production of 
blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit one’s intake of eggs, even designer eggs,
it seems that doing this without regulating dietary fat will probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol 
level.
Question 43. What is the main purpose of the passage?
A. To introduce the idea that dietary at increases the blood cholesterol level.
B. To make people know about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.
C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten.
D. To convince people to eat “designer” eggs and egg substitutes.
Question 44. What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs?
A. Increasing price B. Decreased production
C. Dietary changes in hens D. Concerns about cholesterol
Question 45. What is meant by the phrase “mixed results”?
A. The results are blended B. The results are a composite of things
C. The results are inconclusive D. The results are mingled together
Question 46. Which of the following could best replace the word “somewhat”?
A. in fact B. a little C. indefinitely D. a lot
Question 47. According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately of the suggested daily limit for 
human consumption of cholesterol?
A. 3/4 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3
Question 48. The word “portrayed” could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. studied B. destroyed C. tested D. described
Question 49. What is the meaning of “back up”?
A. reverse B. advance C. block D. support
Question 50. According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of the following types
of eggs EXCEPT...
A. boiled B. poached C. scrambled D. fried
TEST 2
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs 
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. honorable B. honesty C. historic D. heir
Question 2. A. chore B. change C. choice D. chorus
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other 
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following question.
Question 3. A. terrific B. Pacific C. Arabic D. mechanic
Question 4. A. evaporate B. consulate C. communicate D. coordinate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase CLOSEST in 
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5. I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic.
A. reasonable B. acceptable C. pretty high D. wonderful
Question 6. He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase OPPOSITE in 
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning
A. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal
Question 8. Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly
A. amicable B. inapplicable C. hostile D. futile
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the 
following questions.
Question 9. Japanese initially used jeweled objects to decorate swords and
ceremonial items.
A. Japanese B. used C. jeweled D. decorate
Question l0. Because of attitudes shape behavior, psychologists want to find out
how opinions are formed.
A. Because of B. shape C. psychologists D. are
formed
Question 11. As the roles of people in society change, so does the rules of
conduct in certain situations.
A. As the roles B. so does C. rules of D.
situations
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
Question 12. “How was your exam?” “A couple of questions were tricky, but on the
_____ it was pretty easy.”
A. spot B. general C. hand D. whole
Question 13. If you practice regularly, you can learn this language 
skill in short _____ of a time.
A. period B. aspect C. arrangement D. activity
Question 14. Students can _____ a lot of information just by taking an active part in
class.
A. concern B. Install C. appear D. memorize
Question 15. __It _____ a long time since we were apart, I did not recognize her.
A. is B. has been C. was D. had been
Question 16. I have learned a lot about the value of labour from my
______ at home.
A. credit B. Energy C. chores
D. roles
Question 17. In the past people believed that women's _____ were as
mothers and wives
A. nature B. Natural C. naturism D. naturalist
Question 18. Not until the manager got the right solution to the
problem ______.
A. we must try by ourselves B. must we try by ourselves
C. have we to try by ourselves. D. we must try for ourselves
Question 19. A few years ago, a fire _____ much of an overcrowded
part of the city.
A. battled B. Devastated C. Mopped D. developed
Question 20. Juliet, remember shammed death when Romeo
appears, ______?
A. didn't she B doesn't he C. do you D. will you
Question 21. Charles Lindbergh's feat put him in a position from 
which _____ the development of commercial aviation.
A. he could encourage B. he encourages C. encouraged D.
encouragement
Question 22. She started the course two months ago but dropped
_____ after only a month.
A. in B. back C. out D. of
Question 23. Mary eats ______ she used to.
A. fewer meat and bananas than B. less and less meat and bananas
than
C. less meat and fewer bananas than D. the least meat and fewest
bananas than
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to Indicate the most suitable response to
complete the following exchanges.
Question 24. "I have a terrible headache." “_______”
A. Maybe I'm not going to the doctor’s B. Not very well. Thanks.
C. You should take a rest D. Not bad. I’m going to the doctor's.
Question 25. "Do you want me to help you with those suitcases?"
"_____"
A. Of course, not for me B. No, I can't help you now.
C. No, those aren't mine D. No, I can manage them myself. 
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to Indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning 
to each of the following sentences. 
Question 26. I don't agree with prohibiting smoking in bars.
A. I’m not in favor of prohibiting smoking in bars.
B. Tm not in favor to prohibiting smoking in bars.
C. I’m not favor with prohibiting smoking in bars.
D. I’m not doing a favor to prohibiting smoking in bars.
Question 27. She has always had a good relationship with the children.
A. She has got a lot of children and relatives who she always gets along with.
B. She always gets along well with the children.
C. The children have had her as their friends and relatives.
D. She has always got on well with the children.
Question 28. But for his father's early retirement, Peter would not have taken over the family business.
A. His father retired early, but Peter still ran the family business.
B. Peter’s father didn't want him to take over the family business despite his 
retirement.
C. Peter only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early.
D. Peter didn’t take over the family business because his father didn't retire.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each 
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29. Hems very intelligent. He can solve all problems in no time.
A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all problems in no time.
B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all e problems in no time.
C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all problems in no time.
D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all problems in no time.
Question 30. We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
WORKING MOTHERS
Reliable studies have shown that the children of working mothers have no more
problems than children whose mothers' stay at home. My personal view is that 
mothers should work if they wish.
 Some women have invested so much in a career that they cannot (31) ___to
give it up. Others have to work because of economic necessity, and there are also
those who are simply not (32) _____ out to be full-time parents.
 There appear to be several options when it comes to choosing childcare. These
range from child minders through to granny or the kind lady across the street. (33)
_________, however, many parents don't have any choice; they have to accept
anything that they can get. No (34) _____ how good the available childcare may be,
some children protest if their parents are not around. This is a perfectly normal stage
in a child's development. Babies over the age of six months become dependent on
mum and close family members; so, make sure that you allow (35) __________ time to
help your child settle in.
 And don't forget: if you want to do the best for your children, it's not the
quantity of time you spend with them, it's the quantity that matters.
Question 31. A. bear _______B. decide C.
hope D. expect
Question 32. A. made B. cut C. brought
D. born
Question 33. A. in addition B. in practice C. in order
D. in contrast
Question 34. A. way B. matter C. surprise
D. expression
Question 35. A. little B. no C. lots
D. plenty of
 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the 
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
 Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually 
more popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the 
knowledge gained during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen, 
Melville signed as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to 
Liverpool, England. His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the novel Redburn (1849) . In 1841 
Melville set out on a whaling ship headed for the South Seas. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he wandered 
around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the novel Omoo 
(1847). After three years away from home, Melville joined up with a U.S. naval frigate that was returning 
to the eastern United States around Cape Horn. The novel White-Jacket (1850) describes this lengthy 
voyage as a navy seaman. With the publication of these early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong
and loyal following among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in 1851, 
with the publication of Moby Dick, Melville's popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one level the 
saga of the hunt for the great white whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of 
man against the universe. The public was not ready for Melville's literary metamorphosis from romantic 
adventure to philosophical symbolism. It is ironic that the novel that served to diminish Melville's 
popularity during his lifetime is the one for which he is best known today.
Question 36. The main subject of the passage is _____.
 A. Melville's travels B. Melville's
personal background
 C. the popularity of Melville's novels D. Moby Dick
Question 37. In what year did Melville's book about his experiences
as a cabin boy appear?
 A. 1837 B. 1841 C. 1849 D. 1847
Question 38. The word “basis" is closest in meaning to?
A. foundation B. Message C. Bottom D. theme
Question 39. The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti
because?
A. he had unofficially left his ship. B. lie was on leave while his ship
was in port.
C. he had finished his term of duty. D. he had received permission to take
a vacation in Tahiti.
Question 40. How did the publication of Moby Dick afect Melville's
popularity?
A. His popularity increased immediately. B. It had no efect on his popularity.
C. It caused his popularity to decrease. D. His popularity remained as strong
as ever.
Question 41. According to the passage, Moby Dick is
A. a romantic adventure. B. a single-faceted work.
C. a short story about a whale D.Symbolic of humanity fighting the enviroment
Question 42. The word “metamorphosis” is closest in meaning to
A. change B. Circle C mysticism D. descent
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Before the 1500’s, the western plains of North America were dominated by
farmers. One group, the Mandans, lived in the upper Missouri River country, primarily
in present-day North Dakota. They had large villages of houses built close together.
The tight arrangement enabled the Mandans to protect themselves more easily from
the attacks of others who might seek to obtain some of the food these highly capable
farmers stored from one year to the next.
The women had primary responsibility for the fields. They had to exercise
considerable skill to produce the desired results, for their northern location meant
fleeting growing seasons. Winter often lingered; autumn could be ushered in by
severe frost. For good measure, during the spring and summer, drought, heat, hail,
grasshoppers, and other frustrations might await the wary grower.
Under such conditions, Mandan women had to grow maize capable of
weathering adversity. They began as early as it appeared feasible to do so in the
spring, clearing the land, using fire to clear stubble from the fields and then planting.
From this point until the first green com could be harvested, the crop required labor
and vigilance.
In August the Mandans picked a smaller amount of the crop before it had
matured fully. This green corn was boiled, dried and shelled, with some of the maize
slated for immediate consumption and the rest stored in animal-skin bags. Later in the
fall, the people picked the rest of the corn. They saved the best of the harvest for
seeds or for trade, with the remainder eaten right away or stored for later use in
underground reserves. With appropriate banking of the extra food, the Mandans
protected themselves against the disaster of crop failure and accompany hunger.
The woman planted another staple, squash, about the first of June, and harvested it
near the time of the green com harvest After they picked it, they sliced it, dried it,
and strung the slices before they stored them. Once again, they saved the seeds from
the best of the year's crop. The Mandans also grew sunflowers and tobacco; the latter
was the particular task of the older men.
Question 43. What is the main topic of the passage?
 A. The agricultural activities of a North American Society. 
 B. Various ways com can be used.
 C. The problems encountered by farmers specializing in growing once crop.
 D. Weather conditions on the western plains.
Question 44. The Mandans built their houses close together in order to
 A. guard their supplies of food B. protect themselves against the weather
 C. allow more room for growing corn D. share farming implements
Question 45. Why does the author believe that the Mandans were skilled farmers?
 A. They developed effective fertilizers. B. They developed new varieties of corn. 
 C. They could grow crops in most types of soil. D. They could grow crops despite adverse weather. 
Question 46. The word "consumption" in the 4th is closest in meaning to 
 A. decay B. planting C. eating D. conversion
Question 47. Which of the following processes does the author imply was done by both men and women?
 A. Clearing fields B. Planting corn C. Harvesting corn D.Harvesting squash
Question 48. The word "them" in the last paragraph refers to?
A. women B. seed C. slices D. the Mandans
Question 49. Which of the following cr

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