Đề thi chọn học sinh giỏi môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 11 - Năm học 2015-2016 - Trường THPT Lương Ngọc Quyến

SỞ GD&ĐT THÁI NGUYÊN
TRƯỜNG THPT 
LƯƠNG NGỌC QUYẾN
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
NĂM HỌC 2015 - 2016
Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Lớp 11 
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút
ĐIỂM
GIÁM KHẢO SỐ 1
(Họ tên, chữ ký)
GIÁM KHẢO SỐ 2
(Họ tên, chữ ký)
SỐ PHÁCH
PART A. LISTENING (4.0 points)
Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe hiểu:
- Nội dung nghe gồm 02 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 2 lần, đĩa CD tự chạy 2 lần.
I- You will hear a radio announcer talking about Plymouth Sea Life Centre. For each question, fill in the missing information in the blanks.
PLYMOUTH SEA LIFE CENTRE
COST
Adults (1) .. pounds, children 2.00 pounds.
Special prices for over sixties and school groups.
OPENING TIMES
Every day except 25 and 26 December.
FOR CHILDREN - (special quiz)
Animals are fed every (2) .. from 9.30 am.
Slide and (3) . shows from 10.00 am.
GROUPS
Guided tours available - ask at the (4) .. .
NEW ATTRACTION
Walk through the big (5) . made of glass.
REFRESHMENTS
Family area sells (6) , cold drinks, ice creams.
FOR MORE INFORMATION TELEPHONE 01743 564219
II- You will hear an interview with a student called Sarah Mercer, who is planning to become a weather forecaster. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B or C.
1- Why did Sarah first become interested in the weather?
A. She studied weather in school science lessons.
B. She had experience of bad weather where she lived.
C. She saw programmes about weather on TV.
2- Who encouraged Sarah’s interest in the weather at home?
A. her mother
B. her father
C. her grandfather
3- Pupils at Sarah’s school club
A. produced a book about the weather.
B. provided information to the school for projects.
C. set up equipment for studying the weather.
4- What mistake did Sarah’s family make during a sailing trip?
A. They didn’t recognise signs of bad weather coming.
B. They hadn’t made preparations for bad weather.
C. They failed to check weather forecasts regularly.
5- Sarah thinks in future she’d like to
A. work in the area of sport.
B. be on TV weather programmes.
C. travel abroad for her job.
6- What kind of weather does Sarah like best?
A. when the sun is shining
B. when it’s raining hard
C. when there’s fog
PART B. PHONETICS ((1.0 point))
I. Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose main stress pattern is different from the others. (0.5 point)
1. 	A. perform	B. campus	C. mountain	D. equal
2. 	A. distinguish	B. appliance	C. opinion	D. politics
3. 	A. information 	A. contaminate 	C. mathematics	D. politician
4. A. understanding 	B. anniversary	C. experience	D. celebration
5. A. referee 	B. dedicate	C. volunteer	D. understand
II. Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (0.5 point)
1. A. closure 	B. pleasure	C. conclusion	D. pressure
2. A. enough	B. rough	C. tough	D. though
3. A. walked	B. threatened	C. passed	D. forced
4. A. picture 	B. temperature	C. failure 	D. mixture
5. A. streets 	B. phones 	C. books 	D. makes
PART C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (5.0 points)
I. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (4.0 points).
1. the time you get to the theatre, the play will have finished.
	A. Until	B. In	C. By	D. On 
2. They are going to make excursion next month.
A. a two-week 	B. two-weeks	C. two weeks'	 	 	D. a two-week's
3. He refused to give up work , he had won a million pounds.
	A. despite	B. however	C. even though	D. as though
4. The new system didn’t ... expectations.
A. catch up with 	B. bring about 	C. come across 	D. come up to 
5. The newspaper report contained important information.
	A. many	B. another	C. an	D. a lot of
6. You better be careful not to miss the train.
	A. would	B. should	C. had	D. did
7. Helen asked me the film called “Stars Wars”.
	A. have I seen	B. have you seen	C. If I had seen	D. if had I seen
8. She had no . of selling the clock. It had belonged to her grandmother.
	A. intention	B. meaning	C. interest	D. opinion
9. The noise from the boat engine might disturb sea animals.
A. comes	B. came	C. coming	D. has come
10. I’m really looking forward to university. 
	A. to go	B. go	C. going	D. to going
11.	“Let’s go dancing, ?” - “Yes, let’s”
	A. will we	B. do we	C. don’t we	D. shall we
12.	I don’t want much sugar in my coffee. Just ., please.
	A. few 	B. a few	C. little	D. a little.
13.	As the drug took , the patient got better.
 	A. force	B. influence	C. action	D. take effect
14. Secondary schools offer a wide of subjects.
A. field 	B. scope 	C. list 	D. range
15.	We are very happy to have received a(n) ....... of 500 dollars from a foreign company.
	A. charity	B. donation 	C. hospital 	D. organization
16.	How many are there in the competition?
A. participants	B. participations	C. participative	D. participates
17.	Young volunteers often help the sick or the aged to clean their houses.
	A. on 	 B. off 	C. up	 	D. in
18.	Jim . her on passing the final exams.
	A. thanked	B. prevented	C. congratulated	D. warned
19.	The party..................... I was the guest of honors was extremely enjoyable.
	A. by which	B. at which	C. for which	D. to which
20.	We don't allow in the classrooms.
 A. people smoke 	 B. smoke 	C. people to smoke 	D. to smoking
21.	A wedding is a wonderful opportunity for off new clothes.
	A. wearing	B. carrying	C. showing	D. putting
22.	It’s a good idea to see your doctor regularly for 
	A. a revision	B. a control	C. an investigation	D. a check-up
23. He said that the plane had already left and that I arrived an hour earlier.
 	 A. must have 	 B. had to C. should have 	D. was supposed to
24. Yuri Gagarin was the first person . into space.
A. flew	B. to fly	C. flown	D. fly
25.	Many parents do not let their children make a decision their future career.
 A. in	B. about 	C. on 	D. out
26.	Anne: “Make yourself at home”. - John: “ ”
A. Yes, can I help you	B. Not at all. Don’t mention it
	C. Thanks! Same to you	D. That’s very kind. Thank you
27.	 saying was so important that I asked everyone to stop talking and listen.
	A. What the woman was 	B. The woman was 	 
	C. That the woman was	D. What was the woman
28. We were so late that we had time to catch the train.
	A. nearly	 	B. almost	 	C. hardly	 	D. simply
29. Many species of animals have become due to the irresponsible activities of people.
	A. endanger	B. dangerous	C. danger	D. endangered
30. In 1870, , John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.
	A. in spite of oil prices fluctuated 	B. despite fluctuating oil prices 
	C. but the oil prices fluctuated 	D. oil prices were fluctuating
31. - “Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti or something different?” - “ .”
 	A. Anything will do	B. Yes, please	C. Never mind	D. I don’t mind
32. He had an excellent grade in his examination the fact that he hadn't worked particularly hard.
	A. despite 	B. although	C. because of	D. on account of 
33. Opposite our house there is a large park, there are beautiful trees and flowers. 
	A. where	B. in that	C. which	D. that
34. earlier, I would have done it for you.
	A. Had I known	B. If I knew	C. Should I know	D. Were I to know
35. Only when you grow up the truth.
 	A. you will know	B. you know	C. do you know 	D. will you know
36. We delayed our departure the weather condition.
	A. in spite of	B. on account of	C. instead of	D. on behalf of
37. During the rush hour the traffic in the city centre is terrible.
	A. condensation	B. accumulation	C. concentration	D. congestion
38. Don’t be silly! That possibly be Madonna!
	A. mustn’t	B. shouldn’t	C. won’t	D. can’t
39. Mike is not feeling well so we gave him to do than you.
	A. fewer	B. little work	C. less work	D. least works
40. Our friends won a big prize when he took part in the on TV last week.
	A. game show	B. news	C. music program	D. weather forecast
II. Each of the following sentences has 4 underlined parts. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part of the sentence that needs corrections. (0.5 point)
1. Scientists and economists believe that human beings can never use away all the mineral 
 A B C D
resources on Earth.
2. Plants and animals live in the sea sank to the sea bed when they died.
 A B C D
3. Learning a foreign language enables a student develop an understanding of another 
 A B C D
culture.
4. Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the 
festivities. A B C D
5. In a laboratory experiment, an investigator often begins by work out different conditions
for two groups of subjects. A B
 C D
III. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in capital letters. (0.5 point)
1. Earth Hour is a ........................................... event organized to raise people’s awareness about the need to take action on climate change. (WORLD)
2. Solar energy, wind power and water power are ........................................ sources of energy. (ALTERNATE)
3. This organization is very concerned about the ................................. of the rain forests. (DESTROY).
4. In Western countries, electricity, gas, and water are not luxuries but ................................... (NECESSARY)
5. Two .................................... from the group “Friends of the Earth" are talking to the students. (REPRESENT)
PART D. READING (5.0 points)
I. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. (2.0 points )
 Basic to any understanding of Canada in the 20 years after the Second World War is the country's impressive population growth. For every three Canadians in 1945, there were over five in 1966. In September 1966 Canada's population passed the 20 million mark. Most of this surging growth came from natural increase. The depression of the 1930's and the war had held back marriages, and the catching-up process began after 1945. The baby boom continued through the decade of the1950's, producing a population increase of nearly fifteen percent in the five years from 1951 to 1956. This rate of increase had been exceeded only once before in Canada's history, in the decade before 1911 when the prairies were being settled. Undoubtedly, the good economic conditions of the 1950's supported a growth in the population, but the expansion also derived from a trend toward earlier marriages and an increase in the average size of families. In 1957 the Canadian birth rate stood at 28 per thousand, one of the highest in the world. 
 After the peak year of 1957, the birth rate in Canada began to decline. It continued falling until in 1966 it stood at the lowest level in 25 years. Partly this decline reflected the low level of births during the depression and the war, but it was also caused by changes in Canadian society. Young people were staying at school longer; more women were working; young married couples were buying automobiles or houses before starting families; rising living standards were cutting down the size of families. It appeared that Canada was once more falling in step with the trend toward smaller families that had occurred all through the Western world since the time of the Industrial Revolution. 
 Although the growth in Canada's population had slowed down by 1966 (the increase in the first half of the 1960's was only nine percent), another large population wave was coming over the horizon. It would be composed of the children who were born during the period of the high birth rate prior to 1957. 
1. What does the passage mainly discuss? 
	A. Educational changes in Canadian society 	B. Canada during the Second World War 
	C. Population trends in postwar Canada 	D. Standards of living in Canada 
2. According to the passage, when did Canada's baby boom begin? 
	A. In the decade after 1911 	B. After 1945 
	C. During the depression of the 1930's 	D. In 1966 
3. The word "five" in line 2 refers to 
	A. Canadians 	B. years 	C. decades 	D. marriages 
4. The word "surging" in line 3 is closest in meaning to 
	A. new 	B. extra 	C. accelerating 	 D. surprising 
5. The author suggests that in Canada during the1950's 
	A. the urban population decreased rapidly 	B. fewer people married 
	C. economic conditions were poor 	D. the birth rate was very high 
6. The word "trend" in line 9 is closest in meaning to 
	A. tendency 	B. aim 	C. growth 	D. directive 
7. The word "peak" in line 12 is closest in meaning to 
	A. pointed 	B. dismal 	C. mountain 	D. maximum 
8. When was the birth rate in Canada at its lowest postwar level? 
	A. 1966 	B. 1957 	C. 1956 	D. 1951 
9. The author mentions all of the following as causes of declines in population growth after 1957 EXCEPT
A. people being better educated 	B. people getting married earlier 
	C. better standards of living 	D. couples buying houses
10. It can be inferred from the passage that before the Industrial Revolution 
	A. families were larger 	B. population statistics were unreliable 
	C. the population grew steadily 	D. economic conditions were bad 
II. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions (2.0 points )
 Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun's rays. Desert mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body then cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as 34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed in warming up the body, and an excessive build-up of heat does not begin until well into the day. 
 Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself, whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person, on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to rehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication. 
 The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite is lost even under conditions of moderate thirst. 
1. What is the main topic of the passage? 
	A. Weather variations in the desert 	B. Adaptations of desert animals 
	C. Diseased of desert animals 	D. Human use of desert animals. 
2. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals? 
A. It helps them hide from predators. 	 B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors. 
C. It helps them see their young at night 	 D. It keeps them cool at night. 
3. The word "maintaining" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to 
	A. measuring 	B. inheriting 	C. preserving 	D. delaying 
4. The author uses of Grant's gazelle as an example of 
	A. an animal with a low average temperature 	
	B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel 
	C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures 
	D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature 
5. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower? 
	A. Just before sunrise 	B. In the middle of the day 
	C. Just after sunset 	D. Just after drinking 
6. The word "tolerate" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to 
	A. endure 	B. replace 	C. compensate 	D. reduce 
7. What causes water intoxication? 
	A. Drinking too much water very quickly 	B. Drinking polluted water 
	C. Bacteria in water 	D. Lack of water. 
8. What does the author imply about desert-adapted mammals? 
	A. They do not need to eat much food. 	B. They can eat large quantities quickly 
	C. They easily lose their appetites. 	D. They can travel long distances looking for food.
9. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph? 
A. To show how they use camels. 	
B. To contrast them to desert mammals. 
C. To give instructions about desert survival. 	
D. To show how they have adapted to desert life. 
10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals? 
	A. Variation in body temperatures 	B. Eating while dehydrated 
	C. Drinking water quickly 	D. Being active at night. 
III. Read the following passage and circle the most suitable answer (A,B,C or D) for each space: (1.0 point)
 The computer is undoubtedly one of the most (1) ...................... and important inventions of the twentieth century. Boring or time-consuming jobs which, in the past, would have been (2)...................... by hundreds of workers can now be done by one small computer. However, the (3)......................... of the computer has not been entirely problem-free. Many people feel that we are already too (4)..........................on computers. They think that computers themselves are (5)........................... too powerful, and that people are no longer in control of them.
One of the problems with a computer is that, like any other machines, it can (6).......................... If a computer is (7)........................., the information it is storing can be lost. If a computer program has a(n) (8)......................... in it, the computer’s calculation can be seriously (9)........................... . A faulty program in a hospital or police computer could (10) ........................... terrible mistakes.
1. A. shocking	B. amazing	C. astonishing	D. surprising
2. A. done out	B. made out	C. carried out	D. figured out
3. A. usage	B. experiment	C. introduction	D. operation
4. A. dependent	B. based	C. influenced	D. carried
5. A. becoming	B. getting	C. running	D. turning
6. A. break up	B. break down	C. break into	D. break out
7. A. changed	B. modified	C. contaminated	D. damaged
8. A. foul	B. abnormality	C. wrongdoing	D. error
9. A. devalued	B. affected	C. fooled	D. broken
10. A. do	B. produce	C. find	D. cause
PART E. WRITING (5.0 points)
I. Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the clues at the beginning of each sentence. There’s an example at the beginning (0). (2.0 points)
0. Can you close window, please? 	à	Would you mind closing the window?
1. “I am sorry that I broke the glass” said Jim.
Jim apologised ________________________________________________________ .
2. I really think you ought to take some exercises.
It is high time _________________________________________________________ 
3. He got down to writing the letter as soon as he returned from his walk.
No sooner ____________________________________________________________ 
4. If we can solve the problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
The sooner ____________________________________________________________ 
5. The demand was so great that they had to reprint the book immediately.
So ___________________________________________________________________ 
6. I prefer going out for a meal to staying at home.
I’d rather _____________________________________________________________ 
7. The value of these goods has fallen considerably in the past week.
There has ___________________________________________________________ 
8. While I strongly disapprove of your behavior, I will help you this time.
 Despite _____________________________________________________________ 
9. “Shall we go to Paris for the weekend, John?” Mary asked.
Mary suggested ________________________________________________________ 
10. It is thought that the accident was caused by human error.
The accident _________________________________________________________ 
II. Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given in the brackets. There’s an example at the beginning (0). (1.0 point) 
 0. The next Olympic Games will be held in Asia 	(take)
 à The next Olympic Games will take place in Asia.
1. I offered to help her but she said “No, thanks” (turned)
She ___________________________________________________________________ 
2. I would prefer you not to phone me at work.	(rather)
I ______________________________________________________________________
3. He is determined to campaign for his son’s freedom. (intention)
He has _________________________________________________________________ 
4. “It is not worth worrying about the past” I told him.	(point)
I told him that ___________________________________________________________ 
5. I tried as hard as I could, but I just couldn’t get the money.(matter)
No ____________________________________________________________________ 
 III. Write an essay (about 230 words) on the following topic: (2.0 points)
 In the future, students may have the choice of studying at home by using technology such as computers or television or of studying at traditional schools. Which would you prefer? Use reasons and specific details to explain your choice.
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SỞ GD&ĐT THÁI NGUYÊN
TRƯỜNG THPT 
LƯƠNG NGOC QUYẾN
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 11
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Năm học 2015 -2016
PART A. LISTENING (4.0 points)
SECTION 1. Questions 1-6 (2.0 points)
0.3 point for each correct answer:
1.-3.70hour 	2. hour 	3-videos 
4-information desk 5-tunnel 	6-snacks 
SECTION 2. Questions 1-6 (2.0 points).
0.3 point for each correct answer:
B 2-A 3-A 4-C 5-C 6-B
PART B . PHONETICS ((1.0 point))
I. Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose main stress pattern is different from the others. (0.5 point) 
0.1 point for each correct answer:
1. A	2. D	3. A	4. C	5. B
II. Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (0.5 point)
0.1 point for each correct answer:
1. D	2. D	3. B	4. C	5. B
PART C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (5.0 points)
I. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (4.0 points).
0.1 point for each correct answer:
1. C	2. A	3. C	4. D	5. D	
6. C	7. C	8. A	9. C 	10. D
11. D	12. D	13. D	14. D	15. B	
16. A	17. C	18. C	19. B	20. C
21. C	22. D	23. C	24. B	25. C	
26. D	27. A	28. C	29. D	30. B
31. A	32. A	33. A	34. A	35. D	
36. B	37. D	38. D	39. C	40. A
II. Each of the following sentences has 4 underlined parts. Circle A, B,C or D to indicate the underlined part of the sentence that needs corrections . (0.5 point)
0.1 point for each correct answer:
41. C	42.B	43.C	44.C	45. B	
III. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in capital letters. (0.5 point)
0.2 point for each correct answer:
1. Worldwide 	2. Alternative 	3. Destruction 	 
4. Necessities 	5. Representatives 
PART D. READING (5.0 points)
I. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions . (2.0 points)
0.2 point for each correct answer:
1. C	2. B	3. A	4. C 	5. D	
6. A	7. D	8. A	9. B	10. A
II. Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions . (2.0 points)
0.2 point for each correct answer:
1. B	2. B	3. C	4. C	5. A	
6. A	7. A	8. D	9. B 	10. D
III. Read the following passage and circle the most suitable answer (A,B,C or D) for each space: (1.0 point) 
0.1 point for each correct answer:
1.B	2.C	3.C	4.A	5.A	
6.B	7.D	8.D	9.B	10.D
PART E. WRITING (5.0 points)
I. Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the clues at the beginning of each sentence. (0). (2.0 points)
0.2 point for each correct answer:
1. Jim apologised for breaking the glass.
2. It is high time you took some exercises
3. No sooner had he returned from his walk than he got down to writing the letter.
4. The sooner we (can) solve the problem, the better it will be for all concerned.
5. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately.
6. I’d rather go out for a meal than stay at home. 
7. There has been a considerable fall/decrease in the value of these goods in the past week.
8. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior/ the fact that I strongly disapprove of your behavior, I will help you this time.
9. Mary suggested (John and her) going to Paris for the weekend. 
10. The accident is thought to have been caused by human error.
II. Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given in the brackets. (1.0 point) 
0.2 point for each correct answer:
1. She turned down my offer of help.
2. I would rather you did not phone me at work.
3. He has no intention to stop campaigning for his son’s freedom.
4. I told him that there was no point in worrying about the past.
5. No matter how hard I tried, I couldn’t get the money.
III. Write an essay (about 230 words) on the following topic: (2.0 points)
Marking scheme:
1. Format. (0.2 point) - The composition has three parts: The introduction, the body, the conclusion.
2. Content. (1.0 point) a provision of main ideas and details as appropriate.
3. Language. (0.5point) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of upper secondary gifted students.
4. Presentation. (0.3point) coherence, cohesion and style appropriate to the level of upper secondary gifted students.
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Nguyên tắc làm tròn điểm:
5.1 à 5.0
5.2 à 5.25
5.3 à 5.25
5.4 à 5.5
5.5 à 5.5
5.6 à 5.5
5.7 à 5.75
5.8 à 5.75
5.9 à 6.0
6.0 à 6.0